Judge: Teresa A. Beaudet, Case: 21STCV41765, Date: 2023-08-24 Tentative Ruling
Case Number: 21STCV41765 Hearing Date: August 24, 2023 Dept: 50
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CALIFORNIA FRANCHISE TAX
BOARD, Plaintiff, vs. AMARJIT SAHANI, et al., Defendants. |
Case No.: |
21STCV41765 |
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Hearing Date: |
August 24, 2023 |
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Hearing Time: |
2:00 p.m. |
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[TENTATIVE] ORDER RE: MOTION OF PLAINTIFF CALIFORNIA FRANCHISE TAX BOARD FOR SUMMARY
ADJUDICATION |
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Background
Plaintiff
California Franchise Tax Board (“Plaintiff”) filed this action on November 12,
2021 against Defendants Amarjit Sahani (“A. Sahani”), Rajinder
Sahani (“R. Sahani”), Gurpreet Sahani (“G. Sahani”), and Shaheen Sahani (“S.
Sahani”) (collectively, “Defendants”). The Complaint asserts causes of action
for unjust enrichment/restitution, constructive trust, equitable lien, and
equitable indemnity.
Plaintiff
now moves for summary adjudication in favor of Plaintiff and against Defendants
on certain affirmative defenses asserted by Defendants. Defendants oppose.
Requests for Judicial Notice
The
Court grants Plaintiff’s request for judicial notice. The Court also grants
Defendants’ request for judicial notice.
Legal Standard
“[A] motion for summary
judgment shall be granted if all the papers submitted show that there is no
triable issue as to any material fact and that the moving party is entitled to
a judgment as a matter of law.” (Code Civ.
Proc., § 437c, subd. (c).) “A party may move for summary adjudication
as to one or more causes of action within an action, one or more affirmative
defenses, one or more claims for damages, or one or more issues of duty, if the
party contends that the cause of action has no merit, that there is no affirmative
defense to the cause of action, that there is no merit to an affirmative
defense as to any cause of action, that there is no merit to a claim for
damages, as specified in¿Civil Code section 3294, or that one or more
defendants either owed or did not owe a duty to the plaintiff or plaintiffs.” (Code Civ. Proc., § 437c, subd. (f)(1).)¿“A motion for
summary adjudication shall be granted only if it completely disposes of a cause
of action, an affirmative defense, a claim for damages, or an issue of duty.” (Ibid.)¿
The moving party bears
the initial burden of production to make a prima facie showing that there are no triable issues of material
fact. (Aguilar v. Atlantic Richfield Co. (2001) 25 Cal.4th 826, 850.) If the moving party carries this burden, the burden shifts to the
opposing party to make a prima facie showing that a triable issue of material
fact exists. (Ibid.) Courts “liberally construe the evidence in support of the party
opposing summary judgment and resolve doubts concerning the evidence in favor
of that party.” (Dore v. Arnold
Worldwide, Inc. (2006) 39 Cal.4th
384, 389.)
Discussion
A.
Allegations of the Complaint
In the Complaint, Plaintiff alleges that it
was a defendant named in complaints
in an adversary
proceeding within the Chapter 11 bankruptcy case of In re Rajysan,
Inc., filed on September 19, 2018 as Case No. 9:17-bk-11363-DS (the
“Bankruptcy Case”) in the Bankruptcy Court for the Central District of California. (Compl.,
¶ 7.)
The complaints in that
adversary proceeding, Adv. No. 9:18-ap-01051-DS (the “Adversary Proceeding”),
included the operative “Second Amended Complaint for: Avoidance,
Recovery, and Preservation of
Fraudulent Transfers [11 U.S.C. sections 548, 550,
and 551; (2) Avoidance, Recovery, and Preservation of Fraudulent Transfers [11 U.S.C. § 544, 550, and 551; Cal. Civ. Code § 3439.04, et seq.]; and (3)
Disallowance of Claims held by Defendant [11 U.S.C. §
502(d)]” (the “Committee Complaint”), filed on or about May 21, 2020, on
behalf of The Official Committee of Unsecured Creditors (the “Committee”) of
the bankruptcy estate of
Rajysan, Inc., dba MMD Equipment, a
California Corporation (the “Debtor”). (Compl., ¶ 7.) The Committee Complaint
sought, among other relief, to recover from Plaintiff the aggregate amount of
$1,041,640.19 (plus interest) on account of multiple alleged fraudulent
transfers (collectively, the “Transfers”) from the Debtor to Plaintiff for the
benefit of Defendants. (Compl., ¶ 7.)
The gravamen of the
Committee Complaint was that Defendants, stockholders and insiders of the
Debtor, caused the Debtor to make the Transfers to pay Defendants’ estimated
personal income tax obligations to Plaintiff. (Compl., ¶ 8.) The Committee
Complaint alleged that the Transfers were actual fraudulent transfers made with
the actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud one or more creditors of the
Debtor. (Compl., ¶ 8.) The Committee Complaint also alleged that the Transfers
were constructive fraudulent transfers in that, generally speaking, the Debtor
allegedly did not receive reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the
Transfers and the Transfers were allegedly made at times when the Debtor was
insolvent, equitably insolvent, and/or undercapitalized. (Compl., ¶ 8.)
On November 19, 2018,
Plaintiff filed in the Adversary Proceeding a Third-Party
Complaint against Defendants based upon
the Transfers, asserting claims for unjust enrichment, constructive trust,
equitable lien, and equitable indemnity (the “Third-Party Complaint”). (Compl.,
¶ 9.)
On or about April 13,
2021, Plaintiff, the Committee, and the Chapter 11 Trustee of the Debtor’s
bankruptcy estate (the “Trustee”) entered into a Settlement Agreement and
Mutual Release (the “Settlement Agreement”) for the purpose of settling the
claims asserted by the
Committee against Plaintiff in the
Complaint. (Compl., ¶ 10.) On May 6, 2021, the Bankruptcy
Court entered an order approving the
Settlement Agreement. (Compl., ¶ 10.) In exchange for the releases provided
thereunder and the dismissal of the Committee’s claims against Plaintiff, the
Settlement Agreement required Plaintiff to pay $350,000 to the Trustee (the
“Settlement Payment”). (Compl., ¶ 11.) On or about June 10, 2021, Plaintiff
made the Settlement Payment to the Trustee. (Compl., ¶ 11.)
On August 26, 2021, the
Bankruptcy Court entered an order dismissing with prejudice the Committee’s
claims against Plaintiff. (Compl., ¶ 13.) On August 27, 2021, the Bankruptcy
Court issued its OSC, in which it stated, among other things, that “it appears
to the court that there is no basis for the court’s continued jurisdiction over
the Third-Party Complaint.” (Compl., ¶ 13.) On September 1, 2021, Plaintiff
filed in the Adversary Proceeding a response to the OSC stating that it would
not object to the dismissal of the Third-Party Complaint without prejudice to
Plaintiff refiling its claims against Defendants in state court and with each
party to bear its own fees and costs in the Bankruptcy Court. (Compl., ¶ 14.)
On October 18, 2021, the Bankruptcy Court entered an order dismissing the
Third-Party Complaint without prejudice. (Compl., ¶ 14.)
Plaintiff
alleges that by the Committee Complaint, the Committee sought to recover from
Plaintiff certain payments plus interest, that were allegedly made by the
Debtor to Plaintiff for the benefit of each of the Defendants, alleging that
such payments were fraudulent transfers under the provisions of the Bankruptcy
Code. (Compl., ¶¶ 16, 21, 26, 31) Plaintiff refers to such payments as the “A.
Sahani Transfers,” the “R. Sahani Transfers,” the “G. Sahani Transfers,” and
the “S. Sahani Transfers.” (Ibid.)
As to the first, fifth,
ninth, and thirteenth causes of action in the instant case, Plaintiff seeks, inter
alia, judgment against A. Sahani in the amount of the “A. Sahani
Transfers,” but not to exceed the amount of the Settlement Payment. (Compl., p.
23:23-26.) As to the second, sixth, tenth, and fourteenth causes of action,
Plaintiff seeks, inter alia, judgment against R. Sahani in the amount of
the R. Sahani Transfers, but not to exceed the amount of the Settlement
Payment. (Compl., p. 24:9-12.) As to the third, seventh, eleventh, and
fifteenth causes of action, Plaintiff seeks, inter alia, judgment
against G. Sahani “[i]n the amount of the G. Sahani Transfers.” (Compl., p.
24:23-25.) As to the fourth, eighth, twelfth, and sixteenth causes of action,
Plaintiff seeks, inter alia, judgment against S. Sahani “[i] n the
amount of the S. Sahani Transfers.” (Compl., p. 25:7-9.)
B. Procedural Issues
As an initial matter,
Defendants request in the opposition that the Court “deny or continue the
motion due to lack of discovery.” (Opp’n at p. 10:24.) Defendants cite to Code of Civil Procedure section 437c, subdivision (h), which provides that “[i]f it appears
from the affidavits submitted in opposition to a motion for summary judgment or
summary adjudication, or both, that facts essential to justify opposition may
exist but cannot, for reasons stated, be presented, the court shall deny the
motion, order a continuance to permit affidavits to be obtained or discovery to
be had, or make any other order as may be just. The application to continue the
motion to obtain necessary discovery may also be made by ex parte motion at any
time on or before the date the opposition response to the motion is due.”
In the reply, Plaintiff
notes that on August 1, 2023, Defendants filed an “Ex Parte Application for
Stay of Litigation or, in the Alternative, to Continue Trial and all Calendared
Dates and Deadlines.” Defendants’ ex parte application argued, inter alia,
that “[t]he Sahanis request that, because of the delays in discovery, the FTB’s
motion for summary adjudication that is set for August 24, 2023 and the
associated dates be continued as well. The current hearing dates do not provide
the Sahanis a sufficient opportunity to conduct discovery in a timely manner
before deadline for the opposition to the summary adjudication motion and the
October 2023 trial date.” (Defendants’ August 1, 2023 Ex Parte Application at
p. 2:15-19.) On August 3, 2023, the Court issued an order on Defendants’ ex
parte application which provides, inter alia, that “[t]he Franchise Tax
Board’s motion for summary adjudication is not continued because no evidence
was presented as to the impact of any outstanding discovery on the issues
raised in the MSA re affirmative defenses.” (August 3, 2023 Order at p. 2:13-15.)
Plaintiff asserts that “[a]lthough
made as part of their Opposition
to the MSA, Defendants’ request for the same relief now is an improper,
unsupported motion for reconsideration under Code
of Civil Procedure section 1008.” (Reply at p. 10:24-11:1.)
Plaintiff notes that “Code
of Civil Procedure section 1008 governs motions for reconsideration of
prior orders. It provides that ‘any party affected by the order may, within 10
days after service upon the party of written notice of entry of the order and based
upon new or different facts, circumstances, or law, make application to the
same judge or court that made the order, to reconsider the matter and modify,
amend, or revoke the prior order…The name of a motion is not controlling, and,
regardless of the name, a motion asking the trial court to decide the same
matter previously ruled on is a motion for reconsideration under Code of Civil Procedure section 1008.” (Myers v. Superior Court (2022)
78 Cal.App.5th 1127, 1135, fn. 4 [internal
quotations omitted].) “A motion
for reconsideration must be based on new or different facts, circumstances or
law, and facts of which the party seeking reconsideration was aware at the time
of the original ruling are not new or different. In addition, a party must
provide a satisfactory explanation for failing to offer the evidence in the first instance.” (In re Marriage of Herr (2009) 174 Cal.App.4th
1463, 1468 [internal quotations and citations omitted].) Defendants’ second
request in the opposition that the Court continue the hearing or deny the
motion due to lack of discovery does not indicate that the request is based on new or different facts, circumstances, or law,
or facts that Defendants were not aware of at the time of the original ruling
on Defendants’ ex parte application.
Based on the foregoing, the
Court denies Defendants’ request to continue the hearing on Plaintiff’s motion or
deny the motion due to the asserted lack of discovery.
C. Defendants’ Fourteenth and Seventeenth Through
Twentieth Affirmative Defenses
On February 4, 2022,
Defendants filed a “General Denial” in this action alleging that Defendants
“generally denies each and every allegation of plaintiff’s complaint.” Defendants’
General Denial also attaches a number of affirmative defenses.
Defendants’ fourteenth
affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every
claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief
sought in the COMPLAINT is barred by the doctrine of preclusion.” (Defendants’
Affirmative Defenses, p. 2.) Defendants’ seventeenth affirmative defense alleges
that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every claim for relief set forth
in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief sought in the COMPLAINT is
barred by the doctrine of res judicata.” (Id.
at p. 3.)
Defendants’ eighteenth
affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every
claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief
sought in the COMPLAINT is barred by the doctrine of collateral estoppel.” (Defendants’
Affirmative Defenses, p. 3.) Defendants’ nineteenth affirmative defense alleges
that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every claim for relief set forth
in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief sought in the COMPLAINT is
barred by the doctrine of merger.” (Ibid.) Defendants’
twentieth affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each
and every claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that
the relief sought in the COMPLAINT is barred by the doctrine of bar.” (Ibid.)
Plaintiff asserts that
the foregoing defenses “are all variations on the same theme and
subsumed within the overarching
doctrine of preclusion called res judicata.” (Mot. at p. 12:10-12) Plaintiff
notes that “in
California res judicata is said to have two aspects, its primary aspect of
bar and merger and the secondary aspect of collateral estoppel.” (Aerojet-General Corp. v. Am. Excess Ins. Co. (2002) 97 Cal.App.4th 387, 401 [internal quotations omitted].)
“Claim preclusion, the primary
aspect of res judicata, acts to bar claims that were, or should have been,
advanced in a previous suit involving the same parties. Issue
preclusion, the secondary aspect historically called collateral estoppel,
describes the bar on relitigating issues that were argued and decided in the
first suit.” (DKN Holdings LLC v. Faerber (2015) 61 Cal.4th 813, 824 [internal quotations and citation
omitted].)
“Claim preclusion arises if
a second suit involves (1) the same cause of action (2) between the same
parties (3) after a final judgment on the merits in the first suit. If claim
preclusion is established, it operates to bar relitigation of the claim
altogether.” (DKN Holdings LLC v. Faerber, supra, 61 Cal.4th at p. 824 [internal citations omitted].) “Issue preclusion differs from
claim preclusion in two ways. First, issue preclusion does not bar entire
causes of action. Instead, it prevents relitigation of previously decided
issues. Second, unlike claim preclusion, issue preclusion can be raised by one
who was not a party or privy in the first suit. Only the
party against whom the
doctrine is invoked must be bound by the prior proceeding…In summary, issue preclusion
applies (1) after final adjudication (2) of an identical issue (3) actually
litigated and necessarily decided in the first suit and (4) asserted against
one who was a party in the first suit or one in privity with that party.” (Id. at pp. 824-825 [internal quotations, citations,
and emphasis omitted].)
Plaintiff indicates that
Defendants served responses to Plaintiff’s First Set of Form Interrogatories in
this action. (Keith Decl.,
¶ 2, Exs. A-D.) Form Interrogatory No. 15.1(a) provides, “[i]dentify each
denial of a material allegation and each special or affirmative defense in your
pleadings and for each: (a) state all facts upon which you base the denial or
special or affirmative defense.” (Ibid.)
Defendants’ responses each contain the following “General Denial” in response
to Form Interrogatory No. 15.1(a):
“(a) Responding Party
denies the allegations in the Complaint. The denials are based on
the
following facts:
Responding
Party committed no wrongdoing. Any wrongdoing is the result of non-parties
Gurmeet
Sahani and Jasmine Sahani. Gurmeet (because many of the involved individuals
have the same last name, to avoid confusion, they will be referred to herein by
their first names) is Rajinder and Amarjit’s son; Gurpreet’s older brother; and
Shaheen’s brother-in-law by marriage to Gurpreet. Jasmine is Gurmeet’s spouse.
Following a 16 court-day bench trial in the Los Angeles Superior Court, on
March 28, 2019, the Hon. Mary Ann Murphy issued a 155 page Statement of
Decision. RJN #2 (Statement of Decision). Therein, she made binding findings
that are highly relevant to the instant matter. Among the many significant
findings, Judge Murphy concluded that this bankruptcy case is the direct result
of Gurmeet and Jasmine, stating:
That Gurmeet
and Jasmine’s conduct led to Debtor’s bankruptcy is relevant for the instant
motion and, in fact, the entire case against Defendants; it is not subject to
dispute or argument – it is the result of a trial where Judge Murphy made
findings that have collateral estoppel effect here. Among the findings are: ‘Gurmeet
Sahani and Jasmine Sahani embarked on a course that drove Rajysan into Chapter
11 Bankruptcy….’ RJN #2 p143. ‘Rajysan is in Chapter 11 proceedings as a result
of the conduct that is the basis for the punitive damage award [against Gurmeet
and Jasmine’]. RJN #2 p135.
That Gurmeet
and Jasmine’s conduct led to Debtor’s bankruptcy is relevant for the instant
motion and, in fact, the entire case against Defendants; it is not subject to
dispute or argument – it is the result of a trial where Judge Murphy made
findings that have collateral estoppel effect in this case. Among the findings
are:
1. Gurmeet
and Jasmine breached their fiduciary duties to Debtor and Defendants more than
25 times.
2. Gurmeet
and Jasmine’s wrongful conduct was intentional and involved concealment in the
form of trickery against, and deceit of, Defendants.
3. Gurmeet
instructed the family and business accountant, Bruce Miller, to use whatever
figures Gurmeet provided.
4. Gurmeet
falsified or altered documents.
5. Gurmeet
and Jasmine failed to disclose and actively hid their wrongful conduct.
6. Gurmeet
and Jasmine engaged in transactions that benefitted themselves at Debtor’s
expense.
7. Gurmeet
defrauded a financial institution in violation of 18
U.S.C. section 1001.
8.
Gurmeet lied under oath.
The Court
found that Gurmeet ‘had major credibility issues, was repeatedly impeached
and at
times, seemed not even to try to answer questions in a credible manner. Gurmeet
Sahani was not a credible witness and was not worthy of belief. issues’.
Similarly, Jasmine was not a credible witness, and ‘bears a great deal of the
responsibility for the lax accounting’ at Debtor. By contrast, the instant
Defendants were found to be credible witnesses.
In the
Court’s Statement of Decision, Gurmeet was found to have been responsible for
the Defendants’ tax returns even though he knew that the tax returns did not
necessarily reflect the truth and were not reliable; ‘he would simply advise
the family [Defendants herein] that the taxes have been paid.’ These, and the
other, findings set forth in the Statement of Decision establish that
Responding Party did not knowingly, intentionally, or negligently participate
in or contribute to a constructive or actual fraudulent transfer.
Moreover,
the money that Rajysan paid to the Plaintiff was the result of Responding
Party’s
promissory notes in the company’s favor. Responding Party has always, and
continues to believe, that the promissory notes are legitimate contractual
obligations that, upon maturity, will require Responding Party to pay the
balance due. The promissory notes are the documents that establish the amount
that Responding Party received, notwithstanding any amounts that Plaintiff
claims is due. Moreover, any amount that Plaintiff claims is due from
Responding Party would be limited to Responding Party’s share of the amounts
Responding Party paid to the Committee for settlement.
The
Propounding Party settled with the Committee when there was no liability owed.
The
claim
brought by the Committee against the Propounding Party was based on the allegation
that the Propounding Party received a fraudulent transfer from Rajysan because
Rajysan made payments on the Responding Party’s behalf. However, those payments
were not fraudulent transfers. As set forth above, the Responding Party has no
liability because the alleged transfers were the result of enforceable
promissory notes for the same amount as Rajysan paid to the Propounding Party.
The promissory notes, therefore were entered into in good faith and for
reasonable value and cannot be fraudulent transfers. If the promissory notes
are enforceable, then the Responding Party was not the beneficiary of a
fraudulent transfer to the Propounding Party, and the Propounding Party had no
liability.
Additionally,
the claims that the Propounding Party asserts in this lawsuit seek monetary
damages that
the Committee is also seeking in the litigation pending in the United States
Bankruptcy
Court case of The Official Committee of Unsecured Creditors of the
bankruptcy estate of Rajysan, Inc., etc. v. Gurpreet Sahani, et al. [Case
No. 9:18-ap-01040-DS]. Any recovery here or in the Bankruptcy Court case
will result in the Responding Party being required to pay the same damages
twice. damages in this case that are damages for which the Committee seeks.”
(Keith Decl., ¶ 2, Exs. A-D, pp. 3:18-6:8.)
Plaintiff also indicates that the Defendants’ responses to Plaintiff’s
Form Interrogatory No. 15.1(a) as to the fourteenth and seventeenth through
twentieth affirmative defenses state, “[s]ee response above related to the
general denials.” (Keith Decl., ¶ 2, Exs. A-D, pp. 9:7;
9:19; 9:23; 9:27; 10:4.)
As set forth above, Defendants’ responses to Form Interrogatory No.
15.1(a) reference litigation involving Gurmeet Sahani and Jasmine Sahani, in
which the Hon. Mary Ann Murphy issued a 155 page Statement of Decision on March
28, 2019 (herein, the “Sahani Litigation”). (Keith Decl., ¶ 2, Exs. A-D, p.
3:24-28.) In the instant motion, Plaintiff asserts that “nothing in that
Statement of Decision has any preclusive effect whatsoever on [Plaintiff].
[Plaintiff] was not a party to the Sahani Litigation...” (Mot. at p. 12:28-13:2.)
Exhibit “D” to Plaintiff’s request for judicial notice is the “Docket for Los
Angeles Superior Court Case No. PC055253.” (Plaintiff’s RJN, Ex. D.) Case No.
PC055253 concerns the matter Rajysan Inc. v. Gurmeet Sahani et al. (Ibid.) Plaintiff indicates that it is not
listed as a party in this action. (Ibid.)
Plaintiff also asserts that it was not in privity with Gurmeet Sahani or Jasmine Sahani. “As applied to questions of preclusion, privity requires the
sharing of an identity or community of interest, with adequate representation
of that interest in the first suit, and circumstances such that the
nonparty should reasonably have expected to be bound by the first suit. A
nonparty alleged to be in privity must have an interest so similar to the
party’s interest that the party acted as the nonparty’s virtual representative
in the first action.” (DKN Holdings LLC v. Faerber,
supra, 61 Cal.4th at p. 826 [internal quotations omitted].) Plaintiff’s
Undisputed Material Fact No. 20 states that “[w]ith respect to the Sahani Litigation, FTB was not in privity with Gurmeet and/or Jasmine Sahani.” In support of this statement, Plaintiff cites to
Defendants’ “General Denial” in their responses to Form Interrogatory No.
15.1(a), which is set forth above. (Keith Decl., ¶ 2,
Exs. A-D, pp. 3:18-6:8.)
In the opposition, Defendants do not appear to dispute that
Plaintiff was not a party to the Sahani Litigation, or that Plaintiff was not
in privity with Gurmeet Sahani or Jasmine Sahani. The opposition does not respond
to Plaintiff’s arguments on this point. As set forth above, “[c]laim preclusion arises if a second suit
involves (1) the same cause of action (2) between the same parties (3)
after a final judgment on the merits in the first suit.” (DKN Holdings LLC v. Faerber, supra, 61 Cal.4th
at p. 824, emphasis added.) “[I]ssue
preclusion applies (1) after final adjudication (2) of an identical issue (3)
actually litigated and necessarily decided in the first suit and (4) asserted
against one who was a party in the first suit or one in privity with that party.”
(Id. at p. 825, emphasis added.)
Based on the foregoing, the Court finds that Plaintiff has met its
burden of demonstrating that Defendants’ fourteenth, seventeenth, eighteenth,
nineteenth, and twentieth affirmative defenses are without merit, and that
Defendants have failed to raise a triable issue of material fact thereto.
D.
Defendants’ Third, Fourth, Twenty-Fifth, and Thirtieth Through Thirty-Second
Affirmative Defenses
Defendants’ third
affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each
and every claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants
allege that the relief sought is barred by the doctrine of estoppel.”
(Defendants’ Affirmative Defenses, p. 1.) Defendants’ fourth affirmative
defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every claim for
relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief sought is
barred by the doctrine of waiver.” (Ibid.)
Defendants’ twenty-fifth
affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every
claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief
sought in the COMPLAINT is barred in whole or part on the ground that Plaintiff
consented to the payment without recourse to Defendants.” (Defendants’
Affirmative Defenses, p. 4.) Defendants’ thirtieth affirmative defense alleges
that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every claim for relief set forth
in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief sought in the COMPLAINT is
barred in whole or part on the ground that Plaintiff’s conduct is the
supervening cause of its damages.” (Id. at p. 5.)
Defendants’
thirty-first affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to
each and every claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege
that the relief sought in the COMPLAINT is barred in whole or part on the
ground that Plaintiff’s recovery is moot by its admission of no liability for
the underlying payment.” (Defendants’ Affirmative Defenses, p. 5.) Defendants’
thirty-second affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to
each and every claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege
that the relief sought in the COMPLAINT is barred in whole or part on the
ground that Plaintiff’s conduct caused its alleged damages.” (Ibid.)
Plaintiff asserts that the foregoing affirmative defenses are in
contravention of the rule that “[a]ffirmative defenses must not be pled as terse legal conclusions,
but rather … as facts averred as carefully and with as much detail as the facts
which constitute the cause of action and are alleged in the complaint.” (Quantification Settlement Agreement Cases (2011) 201 Cal.App.4th 758, 812-813 [internal quotations omitted].) But
the Court does not find that this is the appropriate standard on the instant
motion. Rather, it appears to be an argument applicable to a demurrer to
Defendants’ “General Denial.” Here, pursuant to Code of Civil Procedure section 437c, subdivision
(f)(1), “[a] party may move for summary adjudication as to…one or
more affirmative defenses…if the party contends…that there is no merit to an
affirmative defense as to any cause of action…” As discussed, the moving party bears the initial
burden of production to make a prima
facie showing that there are no triable issues of material fact. (Aguilar
v. Atlantic Richfield Co., supra, 25 Cal.4th at p. 850.)
Plaintiff also asserts that “in their Form Interrogatory 15.1
Response, in which Defendants were required to
state all facts on which they based their Affirmative Defenses, Defendants do
not: (A) explain, much less do so meaningfully, why
[Plaintiff] waived its right to pursue its claims herein or should be estopped from doing so; (B) even use the word ‘waive’ or any
variation thereof, or use the word ‘estoppel’
except in the context of collateral estoppel (a defense addressed in the
preceding section); (C) explain what conduct
of [Plaintiff’s] is alleged to have caused its damages, or how; or (D) specify which payment [Plaintiff] allegedly consented to without
recourse to Defendants.” (Mot. at p. 14:4-10; Keith Decl., ¶ 2, Exs. A-D, pp. 3:18-6:8; 7:16; 7:20; 10:24; 11:19;
11:23; 11:27.)
In the opposition, Defendants assert that Plaintiff’s “second
foundational issue is that [Defendants’] discovery responses, served in April
2022, are insufficiently detailed. [Defendants] dispute this fact…If
[Plaintiff] was dissatisfied with the answers or the objections, it had 45 days
to exercise its statutory right to bring whatever discovery motions it believed
were necessary.” (Opp’n at p. 5:19-24.) Defendants
also assert that “[Plaintiff] has the burden of establishing that [Defendants]
cannot meet one or more of the elements of each affirmative defense. Once
again, [Plaintiff] has not met its burden of proof because it has not addressed
the elements. [Plaintiff’s] sole argument is that it was entitled to settle
without admitting liability. This argument does not support summary
adjudication.” (Opp’n at p. 7:27-8:3.)
Plaintiff asserts that “deficient interrogatory responses satisfy a
movant’s initial burden and shift the burden to its opponent to set forth
specific facts showing a triable issue.” (Reply at p. 2:23-24.) In the reply, Plaintiff cites to Andrews v. Foster Wheeler LLC (2006) 138 Cal.App.4th 96, 105-106,
where the Court of Appeal found that “[p]laintiffs contend we should not draw
an inference of completeness from Foster Wheeler’s discovery. They contend Foster Wheeler inaccurately
portrayed their discovery responses, and fault Foster Wheeler for failing to refer to the elements of plaintiffs’
claim addressed by Foster Wheeler’s special interrogatories, or to the
specific interrogatory answers that showed a lack of evidence. We find no merit
in this contention. As we have discussed herein, plaintiffs’ discovery
responses were devoid of material facts showing that Andrews had been exposed to a Foster Wheeler product. Foster Wheeler was correct to cite to these
interrogatory answers in support of its motion, as they are prima facie
evidence that plaintiffs ‘[do] not possess, and cannot reasonably obtain,
needed evidence’ to support their claim.” (Citing Aguilar v. Atlantic Richfield Co., supra, 25 Cal.4th at p. 854.)[1]
The Andrews Court further noted that “[i]f plaintiffs respond to
comprehensive interrogatories seeking all known facts with boilerplate answers
that restate their allegations, or simply provide laundry lists of people
and/or documents, the burden of production will almost certainly be shifted to
them once defendants move for summary judgment and properly present plaintiffs’
factually devoid discovery responses.” (Id. at
p. 107.)
Plaintiff also notes in the motion Defendants’ responses to Form
Interrogatory No. 15.1(a) state, inter alia, that “[t]he Propounding
Party settled with the Committee when there was no liability owed.” (Keith Decl., ¶ 2, Exs. A-D, pp. 5:21.) In addition, Plaintiff
indicates that the subject “Settlement Agreement and Mutual Release” that
Plaintiff is a party to states in a section titled “No Admission of Liability”
that “[n]othing contained herein shall be deemed to be an admission of
liability or wrongdoing by any Party hereto.” (Plaintiff’s RJN, Ex. C,
Settlement Agreement, § 16.) Plaintiff asserts
that the third, fourth, twenty-fifth and thirtieth through thirty-second affirmative
defenses fail to the
extent they rest on such facts. More specifically, Plaintiff asserts that “[t]o
pursue indemnity from Defendants, [Plaintiff] was not required to admit
liability or to suffer and pay a judgment in the Bankruptcy Court. Rather,
[Plaintiff] was entitled to settle with the Estate and then pursue Defendants
to recover the Settlement Payment.” (Mot. at p. 14:18-21.) Defendants cite to Teachers
Insurance Co. v. Smith (1982) 128 Cal.App.3d 862, 865, where the Court of Appeal noted that “[i]t is likewise
established that suit for partial indemnity can be brought against a
concurrent tortfeasor not named by the tort plaintiff in the original
complaint; that a claim for partial indemnity is independent and can be brought
in a separate suit after settlement or after satisfaction of judgment in the
underlying suit; and that there need not be a judgment against a settling
tortfeasor seeking indemnity.” (Internal
citations omitted.)
In the opposition, Defendants reference Exhibit 5 to their
Request for Judicial Notice, a Joint Status Report filed in Case No. 9:17-bk-11363-DS, the “Bankruptcy Case” discussed in the Complaint in the
instant action. (Compl., ¶ 7.) The Joint Status Report provides, inter alia,
that “[t]his JSR deals only with FTB’s Third Party Complaint (‘TPC’), which
alleges equitable indemnity and related claims against certain ‘insiders’ of
the Debtor (for convenience, the ‘Insiders’). The gist of the TPC is that, if
FTB is held liable on the Committee’s claims, then FTB should be able to
recover from the Insiders since the Committee alleges the Insiders used
corporate funds to pay personal tax liabilities to FTB. As discussed at the
6/12/19 Status Conference, the TPC could be mooted (i.e., if the Insiders
and/or FTB successfully defend against the Committee’s claims) and so
adjudication of the TPC should trail that of the rest of this adversary
proceeding.” (Defendants’ RJN, Ex. 5, p. 4.)
Defendants assert that “[Plaintiff] proposed that its
litigation against the Sahanis await the conclusion of the Estate’s litigation
against the Sahanis. It chose to settle the case even though it knew the claims
may be mooted, and then it filed this action even though it took the position
in Federal Court that its dispute with the Sahanis should proceed after the
Sahani Litigation concludes.” (Opp’n at p. 8:8-12.) Defendants contend that “[Plaintiff] caused
its own damage – it could and should have allowed the Sahanis’ defense to move
forward. By failing to have a finding or even state that the settlement was due
to the Sahanis’ conduct, there is a triable issue of fact about [Plaintiff’s]
right to recover, implicating the affirmative defenses at issue here.” (Opp’n
at p. 8:17-20.)
In light of the
foregoing the Court finds that Defendants
have raised a triable issue of material fact as to the third, fourth,
twenty-fifth, and thirtieth through thirty-second affirmative defenses.
E.
Defendants’ Ninth
Through Eleventh and Twenty-Third Affirmative Defenses
Defendants’ ninth affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and
every claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT,
Defendants allege that the claims for relief in the COMPLAINT are subject to setoff.” (Defendants’ Affirmative Defenses, p. 2.) Defendants’ tenth
affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every
claim for relief set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the claims
for relief in the COMPLAINT are barred by Plaintiff’s impairment of subrogation
rights.” (Ibid.)
Defendants’ eleventh affirmative defense alleges that “[a]s an
affirmative defense to each and every claim for relief set forth in the
COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the claims for relief in the COMPLAINT are
barred by Plaintiff’s impairment of contribution rights.” (Defendants’
Affirmative Defenses, p. 2.) Defendants’ twenty-third affirmative defense
alleges that “[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every claim for relief
set forth in the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief sought in the
COMPLAINT is barred by Plaintiff’s failure to act in good faith and fairly with
Defendants.” (Id. at p. 4.)
Plaintiff asserts that “[i]n their Form Interrogatory 15.1 Response, Defendants do not: (A)
identify any amounts alleged to be due from [Plaintiff]
that would need to be set off against a recovery by [Plaintiff] herein; (B) explain what their asserted subrogation or contribution rights are
or how [Plaintiff] has impaired them; or (C)
explain how [Plaintiff] has failed to act in good faith and fairly with
Defendants.” (Mot. at p. 15:15-18; Keith Decl., ¶ 2, Exs. A-D, pp. 3:18-6:8; 8:15; 8:19; 8:23; 10:16.)
Plaintiff also notes that as set forth above, Defendants’ responses to
Form Interrogatory No. 15.1(a) state, inter alia, that “the claims that
the Propounding Party asserts in this lawsuit seek monetary damages that the
Committee is also seeking,” and that “[a]ny recovery here or in the Bankruptcy
Court case will result in the Responding Party being required to pay the same
damages twice.” (Keith Decl., ¶ 2, Exs. A-D, p. 6:3-4;
6:6-8.)
Plaintiff asserts that the ninth, tenth, eleventh, and twenty-third
affirmative defenses fail because there is no risk of Defendants being required to
pay the same damages twice. Plaintiff cites to 11 U.S.C. section 550, subdivision (a), which provides that “[e]xcept as otherwise provided in this
section, to the extent that a transfer is avoided under section
544, 545, 547, 548, 549, 553(b), or 724(a) of this title [11 USCS §
544, 545, 547, 548, 549, 553(b), or 724(a)],
the trustee may recover, for the benefit of the estate, the property
transferred, or, if the court so orders, the value of such property, from—(1) the initial transferee of such transfer or the entity for whose
benefit such transfer was made; or (2) any immediate or mediate
transferee of such initial transferee.” 11 U.S.C. section 550, subdivision (d) provides that “[t]he trustee is entitled to only a single
satisfaction under subsection (a) of this section.”
Plaintiff
asserts that its “settlement
payment reduced Defendants’ potential liability to the Estate by the amount of the settlement payment.” (Mot. at p.
16:2-3.) Plaintiff asserts that “[t]he recovery [Plaintiff] seeks from each
Defendant herein is either less than the amount of the settlement payment
(because the aggregate Transfers to that Defendant amounted to less than the
settlement payment) or is expressly limited in the Complaint to the amount of
the settlement payment…Therefore, [Plaintiff’s] claims do not expose Defendants
to any risk of double liability.” (Mot. at p. 16:3-7.)
In the opposition, Defendants indicate that Plaintiff does not
offer evidence that the
Estate will reduce its claim
against Defendants. Defendants’ counsel also states that “[i]n March 2023, the plaintiff in the
Bankruptcy Court case against [Defendants], with Sandra McBeth as the Chapter 7 Trustee (‘Trustee’) as the plaintiff,
propounded requests for admission
on [Defendants] seeking admissions that they received the transfers to the FTB.
Specifically, Requests 192, 193,
195, and 196 seek [Defendants’] admissions that transfers occurred, including transfers to the FTB.” (Hyam
Decl., ¶ 15.) Defendants’ counsel also states that “[o]n January 31, 2023, the
Trustee produced additional documents. The documents included a list of
payments from Rajysan to the FTB. The Trustee’s discovery responses did not
reflect that the $350,000 the FTB paid will be credited to the benefit of [Defendants].”
(Hyam Decl., ¶ 16.)
Based on the foregoing the Court finds that Plaintiff has
raised a triable issue of material fact as to the ninth, tenth, eleventh, and
twenty-third affirmative defenses.
F.
Defendants’
Twenty-Eighth Affirmative Defense
Lastly, Defendants’ twenty-eighth affirmative defense alleges that
“[a]s an affirmative defense to each and every claim for relief set forth in
the COMPLAINT, Defendants allege that the relief sought in the COMPLAINT is
barred in whole or part on the grounds of failure to join and [sic]
indispensable party.” (Defendants’ Affirmative Defenses, p. 4.) Plaintiff notes
that Code of Civil Procedure section 389,
subdivision (a) provides as follows:
“A person who is subject to service of process and whose
joinder will not deprive the court of jurisdiction over the subject matter of
the action shall be joined as a party in the action if (1) in his absence
complete relief cannot be accorded among those already parties or (2) he claims
an interest relating to the subject of the action and is so situated that the
disposition of the action in his absence may (i) as a practical matter impair or
impede his ability to protect that interest or (ii) leave any of the persons
already parties subject to a substantial risk of incurring double, multiple, or
otherwise inconsistent obligations by reason of his claimed interest. If he has
not been so joined, the court shall order that he be made a party.”
Plaintiff asserts that “Defendants do not explain, either in their Answer or in their Form
Interrogatory 15.1 Response, which absent party [Plaintiff]
was supposed to join or why that party is indispensable to this action…[Plaintiff] can only assume Defendants were referring to
Gurmeet and/or Jasmine Sahani, or else some representative of the Estate.
Either way, the defense fails.” (Mot. at p. 16:21-26.) Plaintiff asserts that
“[a]s for Gurmeet and Jasmine, a principal thrust of Defendants’ Form
Interrogatory 15.1 Response is that they were responsible for Rajysan’s
bankruptcy and for causing Rajysan to make the tax payments that the Estate
later claimed were fraudulent…Perhaps Defendants’ position is that, because
Defendants contend Gurmeet and Jasmine are responsible, Defendants might have
some claim against them if [Plaintiff] prevails, such that, allegedly, ‘in
[their] absence complete relief cannot be accorded among those already parties’
(Code Civ. Proc., § 389, subd. (a).) However,
Defendants have not sought to join Gurmeet or Jasmine as parties to this
action.” (Mot. at p. 16:27-17:6.)
Exhibit F to Plaintiff’s RJN is the docket for this action, which
does not show that Defendants have sought to add any parties to this action.
(Plaintiff’s RJN, Ex. F.) In the opposition, Defendants do not address
Plaintiff’s arguments concerning the twenty-eighth affirmative defense. Defendants do not dispute that this
affirmative defense does not have merit.[2]
Based on the foregoing, the Court finds that Plaintiff has met its
burden of demonstrating that Defendants’ twenty-eighth affirmative defense is
without merit, and that Defendants have failed to raise a triable issue of
material fact thereto.
Conclusion
Based on the foregoing, Plaintiff’s
motion for summary adjudication is granted in part and denied in part.
The Court grants
Plaintiff’s motion as to the fourteenth, seventeenth, eighteenth, nineteenth,
twentieth, and twenty-eighth affirmative defenses. The Court denies the motion
as to the third, fourth, ninth, tenth, eleventh, twenty-third, twenty-fifth,
thirtieth, thirty-first, and thirty-second affirmative defenses.
Plaintiff is ordered to
give notice of this Order.
DATED:
Hon. Teresa A.
Beaudet
Judge, Los
Angeles Superior Court
[1]In Aguilar v. Atlantic
Richfield Co., supra, 25 Cal.4th at page 854,
the California Supreme Court noted that “[s]ummary judgment law in this state,
however, continues to require a defendant moving for summary judgment to
present evidence, and not simply point out that the plaintiff does not
possess, and cannot reasonably obtain, needed evidence.”
[2]In the reply,
Plaintiff cites to Wisner v. Dignity Health (2022) 85 Cal.App.5th 35, 45, where the Court of Appeal noted that “Wisner fails to respond to SJMC’s forfeiture argument in his
reply brief on appeal, tacitly conceding its merit.”